Is it actually the case that a person legally resident in Spain prior to 2012 is entitled to free health care?
The page I linked to above seems to list all ways to be considered as an "asegurado" or "beneficiario" and I'm not seeing this being listed, unless it falls under the third point of the condition copied below, based on the fact that the TIE which would have been issued prior to 2012 would not have had mandatory health care by other means as a condition for its issue?
Individuals not covered by the preceding point or by article 3 of R.D. 1192/2012, of 3 August, who do not have mandatory health insurance by some other means and who are in any of the following situations:
- Having Spanish nationality and residing in Spanish territory.
- Being nationals of a member State of the European Union, the European Economic Area or Switzerland and being registered on the Central Register of Foreign Citizens.
- Being nationals of a country other than those mentioned above, or stateless, and having authorisation to reside in Spanish terrritory, for as long as that authorisation is valid in accordance with the terms provided for in its specific regulations.
If this logic works, it has made me think that the claim on some British websites that "permanent residency = free health care" would have been true until five years after 2012 (2017) because you could have argued that when you became resident you did not have to have private health care, but nowadays you of course can have permanent residency without having been legally resident before 2012 (therefore not having private coverage would not be "
in accordance with the terms provided for in its specific regulations") so the ststement is no longer true.
Maybe this is where all this confusion arose?