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92 Posts
Despite my flair, I'm not yet an expat, but I'm looking down the road at being a sort of partial one. My wife is a Spaniard and naturalized American, and I'm American.
My wife, being Spanish, can come and go there as she pleases. So then the question becomes: What is necessary for me to be able to be there for six months to (almost) a year? I know for 90 days I can do the "Schengen visa", of course, but then I have to leave the Schengen area for three months. But for staying in Spain more than three months, I would need some kind of other Spain-issued visa.
I know Americans can do a non-lucrative visa, such as what this blogger has done. But he and his wife are not Spanish at all, whereas my wife is.
I'm wondering if my being married to a Spanish person would somewhat simplify the process. Would it?
Also whether we could rent a place there for 6 to almost 12 months, not buy any property so as not to become taxable non-residents, and not be considered tax residents of any sort. We'd be living off savings or perhaps doing a small amount of remote work for American companies (which is consistent with the non-lucrative visa, apparently), though may realize some capital gains or take retirement account distributions--monies that had no origin in Spain whatsoever but would (I believe) be taxed in Spain if we were considered residents there, which is something we need to avoid.
Basically, I'm trying to see how feasible this is, and how much of a paperwork headache it would be each time to set up, because it might be something we do a few cycles of before we might decide to move to Spain for a handful of years or more, at which point we'd become full-on tax residents there.
My wife, being Spanish, can come and go there as she pleases. So then the question becomes: What is necessary for me to be able to be there for six months to (almost) a year? I know for 90 days I can do the "Schengen visa", of course, but then I have to leave the Schengen area for three months. But for staying in Spain more than three months, I would need some kind of other Spain-issued visa.
I know Americans can do a non-lucrative visa, such as what this blogger has done. But he and his wife are not Spanish at all, whereas my wife is.
I'm wondering if my being married to a Spanish person would somewhat simplify the process. Would it?
Also whether we could rent a place there for 6 to almost 12 months, not buy any property so as not to become taxable non-residents, and not be considered tax residents of any sort. We'd be living off savings or perhaps doing a small amount of remote work for American companies (which is consistent with the non-lucrative visa, apparently), though may realize some capital gains or take retirement account distributions--monies that had no origin in Spain whatsoever but would (I believe) be taxed in Spain if we were considered residents there, which is something we need to avoid.
Basically, I'm trying to see how feasible this is, and how much of a paperwork headache it would be each time to set up, because it might be something we do a few cycles of before we might decide to move to Spain for a handful of years or more, at which point we'd become full-on tax residents there.